Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 01:50
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Make-A-Wish helps Tacoma cancer patient fulfill dream of giving back to fellow children - KOMO
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Which country do you recommend for me to live in, England, the USA, Italy, Spanish, or Austria?
You'll usually find your answer there.